So is the code a result of eclampsia? And if so, what would have been the right treatment before the seizure? Load and go? What about an IV in the jugular vein? I agree with the post about most of us not learning the OB stuff. It seems it always comes at the end of the class and gets brushed over due to time constraints. That sucks because being a male, with no prior hx with pregnancy, I have no clue what is going on in this woman's body. Last question, was the BGL in the 35-40 range? If so, I think I would tried real hard to get that IV and give her some glucose.